I have a doubt.
Ancient Indian literature (vedas/upanishads) is in sanskrit, the language of early dravidians. When aryans invaded India, they brought with themselves the caste system and many aryan languages which on mixing with the various local dialects of north india produced indo-aryan languages such as punjabi, bengali, urdu, assamese, gujarati, marathi etc.
Some believe that using the caste system, they subordinated the dravidians and asserted their brahminical supremacy, against which occurred several movements in south India. But brahminism soon became extremely ritualstic, the source of such rituals being primarily the yajur-veda. In this background came Buddha and Mahavira who provided their own religious alternatives.
My question is that 'Is it really true that aryans used the dravidian texts (vedas) to subordinate the dravidians?' If not, what is incorrect in what I have written above? Any help? Thanks.
I don't like to reply to idiots and if you think I am referring to you, you are probably correct.