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Philosophy 2017 doubts,discussions and answer writing

1911131415

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  • Please answer this 2013 question:
    State Kant's view of causality. How far is Kant able to answer Hume's objection that causal relation lacks logical necessity?
  • Whatever hume negated.. kant used s.a.j to bring it back in philosophy... ethics math science causality....since categories are also synthetic apriori.... i.e. universals with practical life implications.... for more understanding... palmer ka kant can be studied.... log.postive. denied kant definition of synthetic apriori.. thus refuted possibility of SaJ
  • Kant has explained causality as a category of understanding which are preconditions for knowledge i.e., it makes knowledge possible. So causality is not external and independent principle but depends on the understanding of mind. He agrees with Hume in holding that causality does not exist outside in things but differs in holding it to be true which Hume denies.
    According to Hume, so called causal relation is not a logical association but psychological association of two independent impressions by mind due to their concomitant occurrence. It is the result of constant observation of two independent events as one following the other which is taken as causation. On this basis, he objects to earlier established views on causal relation.
    Kant wanted to overcome the scepticism arisen by Hume by his denial of causal relation. He explained causality as a category of understanding which are structures in mind according to which it constructs knowledge. Thus, it is in the structure of mind to understand causality. In this way, he answered the objection of Hume by transcendental arguments.
    Kant has thus defended causal relation to show the possibility of synthetic apriori judgement in Natural science. However, it presupposes the acceptance of categories in mind as apriori and if one does not accept them then Kant would be unable to defend it.
  • Buddhism ke notes hai kisi ke pass?
  • can anyone write this answer....?
    Explain Plato’s theory of forms. Does it entail a kind of essentialism? Discuss.
  • edited December 2016
    Plato's theory of forms is the central theory of his philosophy. Ideas or forms are the common and essential quality of all the members of a particular class. Plato propounded theory of form to explain how human achieve knowledge, to explain the relation b/w being and becoming, to explain unity and diversity of the universe, to explain universalism (or essentialism)

    Forms have independent existence not only from mind but also from worldy objects. They exists in the transcedental world. Forms are prior to perception of things. Metaphysically ideas are accepted as ultimate reality. Ideas are accepted as substance.

    Ideas are accepted as universals. They are described as generals. Ideas are the essence of things & essence is that property without which object cannot exists. For example cowness is the essential quality of the entire class of cows and without cowness no cow as such exist. According to Plato, a true philosopher is concerned with the essential nature of things and this reflects in his theory of forms where he talks of what(ideas) essentially make a thing- thus entailing a kind of essentialism.
    However this essentialism of plato is criticised by Aristotle on the ground that if ideas are essence; they cannot exists independent of objects rather imminent in the object.
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  • Plato's theory of forms is the central theory of his philosophy. Ideas or forms are the common and essential quality of all the members of a particular class. Plato propounded theory of form to explain how human achieve knowledge, to explain the relation b/w being and becoming, to explain unity and diversity of the universe, to explain universalism (or essentialism)

    Forms have independent existence not only from mind but also from worldy objects. They exists in the transcedental world. Forms are prior to perception of things. Metaphysically ideas are accepted as ultimate reality. Ideas are accepted as substance.

    Ideas are accepted as universals. They are described as generals. Ideas are the essence of things & essence is that property without which object cannot exists. For example cowness is the essential quality of the entire class of cows and without cowness no cow as such exist. According to Plato, a true philosopher is concerned with the essential nature of things and this reflects in his theory of forms where he talks of what(ideas) essentially make a thing- thus entailing a kind of essentialism.
    However this essentialism of plato is criticised by Aristotle on the ground that if ideas are essence; they cannot exists independent of objects rather imminent in the object.
    i think sbse bada critique unke ideas ka yaha pe ye hoga k bhai agar Ideas itne h essential hai to unko objects me present hona chahiye.unko bathar bitha k kya fayda.aur vo b universal hai mtlb self contradiction kyuki they have been degraded to particulars.
  • Also apne jaha pe ye likha hai a/c to plato a true philosopher is concerned with knowing essence of thing..ye essentialism nhi hai as per me..usse pahle wali line jaha pe metaphysical Ideas are the basis.and ideas(check I and i difference here) are merely copies and cant exist without those class.universal-particular thing..vo essentialism hai..to lines upar niche kar denge to apka ans sahi ho jayega.
    Ps-people dont know where and how to introduce concepts in philo..sb kuch likh k aa jate hai phr lament krte hai k maine to sb kuch chepa phr b number ni mile.depth of philo need to be respected.kb kaha kya aur kaise likhna hai ye aana chahiye..and for it only ans writing can help#personal opinion
  • Essentialism means that "essence preceeds existence" which is seen in theory of forms of Plato where he says that Ideas or forms are the ultimate realities while individuals are mere copies or imperfect expression. There can be no existence if no forms so essentialism.
    Aristotle reverses this to " existence preceeds essence" which is explained by both the above answers. So both are correct.
    According to me, all the above answers are correct. All are saying same thing in different manner. I see some repetition in answer of Vencer due to which the main part of answer gets hidden. When i read it 2-3 times then i could get it. It is good that there are people who realize difference of i and I here. It is good for us to improve.
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